Ask your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics 13 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

k

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if you can use bezout, you get it in one step \(gdc(a,b)=1\iff \) there exists \(x, y\) such that \(ax+by=1\) if you cannot use bezout, look up a proof, it uses the euclidean algorithm

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!