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Mathematics 8 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

if Y<=X, then E(Y)<=E(X) proof???

OpenStudy (goformit100):

If i tell i know the proof then

OpenStudy (anonymous):

The theorem assumes that X and Y are defined on the same probability space Ω. X≤Y means X(ω)≤Y(ω),∀ω∈Ω. Actually, it would be enough to have X(ω)≤Y(ω) for P-almost all ω∈Ω, where P is the probability measured

OpenStudy (anonymous):

it's not true for instance : y= 0.2 x=0.3 E( ) = -X^2 E(Y)=-0.04 E(X)=-0.09 here Y<=X but E(Y)>=E(X)

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