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MIT 8.01 Physics I Classical Mechanics, Fall 1999
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I have a question regarding to the rotating rod PC example in lecture 21. Professor said that the torque is relative to P is 0,but why? I thought there should be mgcosø at C that renders torque to be non-zero
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If we were rotating this on a table then the idea will hold.
Yes exactly thought professor was talking about nailing the rob on the wall. But I was wrong he meant on a fricitonless plane.
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