The allele for a widow’s peak has complete dominance over the allele for a straight hairline (w). What is the probability of a man with a straight hairline (ww) and a woman with a widow’s peak (WW) having an offspring without a widow’s peak?
0 percent
75 percent
25 percent
50 percent
I chose 75% due to the dominant gene rom the woman (WW). I did the punnett square and I end up getting three with the dominant trait, so I say it would be 75%Is this wrong?

Question

The allele for a widow’s peak has complete dominance over the allele for a straight hairline (w). What is the probability of a man with a straight hairline (ww) and a woman with a widow’s peak (WW) having an offspring without a widow’s peak? 
  0 percent 
 75 percent 
 25 percent 
 50 percent 
I chose 75% due to the dominant gene rom the woman (WW). I did  the punnett square and I end up getting three with the dominant trait, so I say it would be 75%Is this wrong?

anonymous · Answer

i would agree, i recieved the same answer, when i worked the problem out, good job

anonymous · Answer

oh wow, thank you very much.

aaronq · Answer

Because 1 parent (the mom) has both WW alleles, all  (100%) of the offspring will have the widow's peak.
|dw:1378424428602:dw|

Since the answer asks "what is the probability of having an offspring without a widow’s peak?" the answer is 0.

goformit100 · Answer

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