Is Germany entirely blamed for the outbreak of WW1? Why?
Pretty much. The Treaty of Versailles essentially has what was called a "War Guilt" clause that laid the blame entirely at Germany's feet with massive reparations and a huge loss in national prestige. It essentially gutted Germany in order to keep it from being a threat ever again. At least, that's what the goal was meant to be. A lot of the effort to punish Germany came from France which shared a border with them and had suffered massive losses at their hands. Britain and the US wanted more lenient terms, but France and its negotiators eventually won out in punishing Germany.
but the Treaty of Versailles was only AFTER World War One wasn't it? :3
no Germany is not entirely responsible
she is right...the questions isn't asking what happened after the war...its asking if Germany was responsible
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!