Maybe an odd/slightly difficult question, but would appreciate any explanation given... Why does RSM of a sine wave = peak x sqrt 2...?
RSM?
RMS value i think
ugh, my bad, root mean squared
RMS using the continuous definition?
yeah, i guess? all i understand is how to find the RMS value of a sine wave... not the why it is so...
this whole q is screwy, sorry, peak = rms x sqrt 2 my bad ... again
Start from definition of RMS \[ f_{RMS}=\lim_{x\to \infty}\sqrt{\int_0^x[f(t)]^2\;dt} \]
So we'll start with something as simple as \[ \int_0^x\sin^2(t)\;dt \]
Use \(\sin^2(t)=\frac 12[1-\cos(2t)]\)
This doesn't look good because the limit won't converge at infinity.
So instead just do something like the period of the sine wave, I suppose. It is perfectly representative.
The period of \(\sin^2(t)\) is \(\pi\).
So I guess it is good enough to just do: \[ \sqrt{\frac 1\pi \int_0^\pi \sin^2(t)\;dt} \]
@Jack1 Does that make sense so far?
yeah, im with you so far
\[ \int \sin^2(t)\;dt=\frac 12\int 1-\cos (2t)\;dt=\frac 12 t-\frac 14\sin(2t)+C \]
So \[ \int _0^\pi \sin^2 (t)\;dt = \frac 12 t-\frac 14 \sin(2t)\Bigg|_0^\pi=\frac \pi2 \]
Putting it back in: \[ \sqrt{\frac 1\pi \times \frac \pi2} = \sqrt\frac 12 \]
Peak x, is really just the amplitude.
In this case amplitude was 1.
brilliant, but my integration is a bit off, so why did we take the 1/pi out in the first place again...?
Because it is in the definition.
If you're doing RMS over an interval, you have \[ \sqrt{\frac 1{b-a}\int _a^b[f(t)]^2\;dt} \]
ahh, with u again, cheers
For a periodic function of period \(p\), you can just let \(a=0, b=p\)
For non periodic functions, it would seem you'd do something like \(a=0\, b\to \infty\)
thanks for that man, makes sense now cheers @wio
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