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Applying laplace equation:
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h=f(y-z),f(z-x),f(x-y) Prove that sum of partial derivatives of h with respect to x,y,z=0
So we are wanting to prove this... \(\displaystyle \frac{\partial h}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial}{\partial x}(f(y-z))=0\) And we have to prove this using The Laplace Transform?
Laplace equation I guess. I am new to this section of questions.
not Laplace Transform
Do you have any clue as to how you would set this up? I am not having anything jump out at me.
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