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If the random variable z is the standard normal score and a > 0, is it true that P(z > -a) = P(z < a)? Why or why not? The answer someone gave me was False as there is a distribution in negative side even. why would it be even?
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I have two questions this is what they say If the random variable z is the standard normal score and a > 0, is it true that P(z > -a) = P(z < a)? Why or why not? & Find the (two) z-scores that bound the middle 40% of the standard normal distribution.
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