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If f(s)=f(t) then s=t true or false and why
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hint: think of a parabola (and its symmetry)
It's false
it is false in general.
your statement should be "For any function f , if f(s) = f(t) then s = t ." This is false because you can produce a counterexample Suppose we look at the function f(x) = x^2 , R -> R Now f(-2) = f(2) = 4 so the hypothesis is true f(s) = f(t) but -2 =/= 2 so the conclusion is false ( s not equal to t)
so we showed it is false that for any function f , when f(s) = f(t) then s = t . We found a function where f(s) = f(t) , but s is not equal to t
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There are some function for which the statement is true , these functions are called 1 to 1 functions. But in general it is false (it is not true for all functions).
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