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Pearson's correlation coefficient (r) is considered a symmetric measure because: its values range from 0 to 1. it indicates the causal relationship between two variables. the sign of r is the same as the sign of the regression coefficient. it will be the same regardless of which variable is the x and which is the y. None of the above.
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@anx
Its symmetric because the correlation between x and y is the same as the correlation between y and x. heres a website for reference. http://pages.ucsd.edu/~aronatas/corr.html
ty
so is it D?
I believe so yes.
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ty!
could u help with some more plz?
Whatcha got? I'll try
ok cool
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