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im not getting x but im getting 1/x.. Am I doing this right?
yes
\[\large \bf f(x)=\frac{4}{x}~and~g(x)=\frac{4}{x}\] \[\large \bf f(g(x))=f(\frac{4}{x})=\frac{4}{\frac{4}{x}}=x\]
\[\large \bf g(f(x))=g(\frac{4}{x})=\frac{4}{\frac{4}{x}}=x\]
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hence,proved. @swagmaster47
I forgot that dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by the inverse! Thanks.
You didn't explicitly say that but you reminded me.
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