I think its A but I really need a step by step and show your work process so that I may understand it thoroughly. A two-way frequency table shows baldness in men over 45 and men under 45? Under 45 | over 45 | total Bald | 24 | 16 | 40 not bald| 36 | 24 | 60 | 60 | 40 | 100 Based on this data, are baldness and being over 45 independent events? a.) yes, p(bald|over 45)=p(bald) b.) yes, p(bald|over 45)=p(over 45) c.) no, p(bald|over 45) ≠ p(bald) d.) no, p(bald|over 45)
Im not very sure, I think it might be A. Let me check my work quickly
can you post your work too please?
yeah
@kilonielove are u still there? are you posting your work?
probability first col 24/60 --- bald/total men =2/5 ditto second col 16/40--ditto 2/5 so it seems independent of age but I don't understand the choices not familiar with terminology you pick
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