um how do you prove that \(0=1\)?
you dont because its not true lol
http://prntscr.com/6ij8lu From: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_fallacy
show us the proof
But it's not possible for this question because http://prntscr.com/6ij8ti
i know one way but like any other ways? the way i know 0=1-1+1-1+1-1+1-1(repeat) 0=(1-1)+(1-1)... (repeat 0=1+(1-1)+(1-1)... repeat (1-1)=0 0=1+0+0+0+0....(repeat) 0=1?
maybe it was a mistake in the proof
maybe you might want to take this question to a philosophy teacher, where they teach with out logic
lol well i was just curious if anyone like know this thing
You are subtracting 1 from the 1 to make it 0. You can't do that without doing it to both sides.
i know one way but like any other ways? the way i know 0=1-1+1-1+1-1+1-1(repeat) 0=(1-1)+(1-1)... (repeat 0=1+(-1+1)+(-1+1)... repeat (-1+1)=0 0=1+0+0+0+0....(repeat) 0=1?
there sorry it was a mistake
see... i used the power of a n infinity
the repeat thing
Well basically \(\sf 0\neq1\)
it was just a hypothesis since if 0=1 then 0 could = everything... then we can get an 100 on our test or an 0 depending on what the teacher thinks.
Haha
ikr...
then it would be scary since the hypothesis in the movie LUCY would be true and a pencil could turn into a universe...
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