Are the variables in a direct or inverse variation equation interchangeable? Like, if P1/v1=p2/v2, does that mean that v1/p1=v2/p2 as well?

Question

anonymous · Answer

i'm not going to ask for answers or anything like that, I just need to know the theory.

dtan5457 · Answer

I believe so.

Here's an example (gay-lussac's law)

p1/t1=p2/t2

"The pressure exerted by an ideally behaving gas is 7 kilo pascals at 200k. What pressure is the gas at 500k?

normally

7/200k=p2/500k

same thing as

200k/7=500k/p2

both=17.5 kpa

anonymous · Answer

It is very correct @coolshava . That is because they still vary directly proportional. Just take this example:|dw:1428393244813:dw|