Question

Force between 2 identical short bar magnets whose centres are r metre apart is 4.8 N when their axes are in the same line. if the separation is increased to 2r metre then the force b/w them is?

Answer 1

@MrNood

Answer 2

@irishboy123 @Rushwr

Answer 3

I am not entirely sure on this but

I THINK htat the magnetic attraction force follow the 'inverse square law' (similar to gravity)

so the force is proportional to 1/s^2 where s is the distance

if oyu double the distance therefore you 1/4 the force

Answer 4

Ye, that's what I thought but it's not the correct answer. Then I thought since magnets does not occur as monopole the variation must be 1/r^3 but the correct answer is 0.3 which means the variation is 1/r^4. i am not able to understand how?

Answer 5

OK - soz - not able to help further

Answer 6

Thanks doe c:

Answer 7

here Abhisar c: http://www.learnnext.com/nganswers/ask-question/answer/Q-force-between-2-identical-short-bar-magnets-whose-centres-are-r-metre-apart-is-48-N-when-their-axes-are-in-the/Magnetism-and-Matter/51278.htm

Answer 8

Ye, i saw that. They have solved it wrong...

Answer 9

v.v

lemme look again :3

Answer 10

but that looks alright

Answer 11

And this? http://www.sakshieducation.com/EAMCET/PreviousPapers/Physics/SrInterPhysics/3_1_MAGNETISM.pdf :o

Answer 12

Haha, nuuu it is wrong doe. The answer should be 0.3 N btw.

Answer 13

See, that pdf file also says that it should be 1/r^4 i.e. o.3 N

Answer 14

So your making the question already knowing the answer? o.e

Answer 15

:) so why do we it inverse square law

Answer 16

Irishboy !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Answer 17

Save me !! c:

Answer 18

@Abhisar


fraid i am clueless on how this becomes \(x^{-4}\). i would bet on inverse square especially as these are pole to pole......

Answer 19

I think it has to do with the fact that unlike electric poles there are no magnetic monopoles.

Answer 20

This is from Wikipedia - the formula doesn't reproduce here - but you can see it is 1/r^2

If both poles are small enough to be represented as single points then they can be considered to be point magnetic charges. Classically, the force between two magnetic poles is given by:[2]
F={{\mu q_{m1} q_{m2}}\over{4\pi r^2}}
where
F is force (SI unit: newton)qm1 and qm2 are the magnitudes of magnetic poles (SI unit: ampere-meter)μ is the permeability of the intervening medium (SI unit: tesla meter per ampere, henry per meter or newton per ampere squared)r is the separation (SI unit: meter).
The pole description is useful to practicing magneticians who design real-world magnets, but real magnets have a pole distribution more complex than a single north and south. Therefore, implementation of the pole idea is not simple. In some cases, one of the more complex formulas given below will be more useful.

Answer 21

this link implies that empirically the result is fopund to be 1/r^4, but does not offer any theory...

http://www.exo.net/~pauld/activities/magnetism/forcebetweenmagnets.html