Given X = (1, 2, 3, 4}, Y={5, 6}, and f={(1, 5), (2, 5), (3, 5)}, f is a function from X to Y.

Question

zepdrix · Answer

Hey Flan! :)
Welcome to Open Study!

I see something about a function mapping,
what is the question?
true and false or something?

anonymous · Answer

Sorry about that. It is true/false for discrete math. I believe the answer is is false.

jim_thompson5910 · Answer

why do you think it's false?

er.mohd.amir · Answer

it is not a fuction since elements of domain 1,2,3 are attach with codmain elements 5 which is not in fuction it can be a mapping many to one.

zepdrix · Answer

Hmm why would many-to-one not be a function?

er.mohd.amir · Answer

Acc to def. of  fun. but some author say it is also function but most say its not function its mapping.

anonymous · Answer

it is a function. if you had more than one y for the same x.. then it would only be mapping/relation