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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

if f(x,y) is =abs(x^-y^2)/(x^2-y^2) does LIM (x,y)--->(0,0) exist more like below

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[LIM \frac{ \left| x^{2}-y^{2} \right| }{ x ^{2}-y ^{2} }\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I know that I have to come up with curves to show that it doesn't. What I do not get is how to get around the absolute value on top.

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