Question

Earle says that m×(−1) is always equal to m÷(−1), for all rational values of m. Is he correct?

Use the drop-down menus to explain whether
Earle is correct.

Earle :(is not, is) correct.
The expressions (are not equivalent when m=0, always equal the same negative number, both represent the opposite of m, or may or may not be equivalent)

In the parenthesis you can choose