Question

Transfer function applied in feedback Amplifiers :

Answer 1

I Was looking at what chegg was doing to find the frequency at 180 deg . But I dont understand how they did it , I was hoping someone could give me another perspective.

Answer 2

Here is what Chegg did :

Answer 3

Yes I understand that you have to replace s with jw . My question is . How did they know to equal 180 deg to 0 deg - 3 tan^-1 ()

Answer 4

uhh my book says atan(imaginary/real) in other words representation as a phasor and taking the phase angle....

Answer 5

so they likely replaced s with jw, and then took the real and imaginary parts, plugged them into the definition for the phase angle, and then calculated it. I assume they skipped some steps.

Answer 6

analyzing .... Thank you

Answer 7

@inkyvoyd . can you walk me through it . Please.

Answer 8

@inkyvoyd I figured it out , but can you explain why its 3*tan^-1.. How did the 3 get there ?

Answer 9

I could not find an algebraic way the 3 times the atan nor a property of phasor . But Thank you for your help ! :)

Answer 10

Sorry @Mrhoola I'm in a 200 level course lol... we didn't even go through phase in our bode plot topic coverage; we just went over magnitude. My text had some material regarding phase angle calculation so I mentioned it to you in hopes it'd help.

Answer 11

Actually it did help . And I really appreciate that your time into helping me . . 200 Level Course ? 2nd semester of circuit analysis ?

Answer 12

first semester lol... "Electrical engineering fundamentals 1"