Please help............................ Danika concludes that the following functions are inverses of each other because f(g(x)) = x. Do you agree with Danika? Explain your reasoning. f(x) = |x| g(x) = –x
replace the x in f(x) by the expression for g(x). What do you get
so i would have to solve for g(x)?
Just replace the x in f(x) by g(x) that will give you an expression for f{(g)x)
To give you a simple example if f(x) = x -1 and g(x) = 2x then f(g(x)) = 2x - 1
|dw:1469562057445:dw|
so x will be one right?
No x is just a variable and can be any real value
so it could be any number then
yes but we are not solving an equation here we want to see if f(g(x)) for the given f(x) and g(x) equals x.
okay, so f(g(x)) will have to give me a number?
try doing it this way f(x) = |x| let y = f(x) so y = |x| Now solve for x
that this equation will give me a number right?
no it will give you an expression in x
* in y
i dont get it :(
sorry but i have to go right now I'm sure youll get help from another person
thank you anyway really appreciate it
derp
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