please help will fan and medal !!!! Finish the proof of the corollary angle theorem below. http://cdn.activelms.com/data/042c73b1-ddf5-4fd6-91e7-6c8434228f3d/Geometry%20Images/unit%2012-3%20q8.png
Statements 2 and 3 are saying the same thing but referencing different measurements. If Statement 3 is talking about the measurement of angle D... what angle do you thing Statement 2 is referencing?
A = m<A = 1/2 arcs BC B =The measure of an inscribed angle is half the measure of its intercepted arc. C=Corresponding angle Postulate.
@luffingsails is that correct or not
Perfect start!
So, (b) is the same reason as for Statement 2. Right?
yes it is @luffingsails
Right so, now look at statement 4 in relationship to statement 5. They are saying very much the same thing. I think if you look up the definition of congruent you will be able to use that for the reason in place of (c).
Two inscribed angles that intercept the same arc are congruent.
Close, instead (c) would be "two angles whose measurements are equal are congruent." The following on statement that can be made from the proof is exactly what you wrote, "Two Inscribed Angles that intercept the same arc are congruent."
oh okay thank u so much
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