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\(\color{black}{\displaystyle f(x)= f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)}\)
(This is at x=2, or near x=2.) \(\color{black}{\displaystyle f(x)= f(2)+f'(2)(x-2)}\) \(\color{black}{\displaystyle f(x)= 5-3(x-2)}\) \(\color{black}{\displaystyle f(k)= 5-3(k-2)}\) you want \(\color{black}{\displaystyle f(k)=k}\), so we call \(\color{black}{\displaystyle f(k) }\), \(\color{black}{\displaystyle k}\). \(\color{black}{\displaystyle k= 5-3(k-2)}\).
Yes. Compare this to the familiar y=mx+b, where m is the slope of the straight line and f(a) is the initial value (which in some cases would be the y-intercept, (0,b).
i just solve for k then?
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