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OpenStudy (user123):

why is 1/mass proportional to acceleration?

OpenStudy (osprey):

Newton's second law is often "said" in the form F=ma. If you divide each side by m, you get F/m = a. For a CONSTANT force on this occasion, then 1/m is proportional to a where the constant is F. Newton 2 ACTUALLY talks about the "RATE OF CHANGE OF MOMENTUM", but F=ma is "tidier" so I'm told. There is prob no one on the planet who can REALLY answer the q "why". http://perendis.webs.com

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