Question

Calculus question!

Answer 1

So if the second derivative looks like this, will it still have a point of inflection at the point where f''(x) = 0

Answer 2

@mathmate

Answer 3

Hmm,
It satisfies the necessary condition, since f"(p)=0 exists.
For the sufficient condition, we do not have f"(p-\(\epsilon\)) and f"(p+\(\epsilon\)) in different signs.