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is it possible to have a change in genotype frequency without having a change in allele frequency?
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Yes. If you rearrange the alleles, without changing their overall total number. For example, Bb bb bb BB BB, the genotype frequency for BB is 2/5 (or 0.4), right? And the allelic frequency for B is 5/10 (or 0.5). However, if we rearrange this to Bb Bb Bb Bb Bb, you can see that the genotype frequency for BB is 0/5 (or 0), And the allelic frequency for B is still 5/10 (or 0.5).
The genotype frequency refers to the frequency of a certain COMBINATION of alleles (e.g frequency of BB), while the allelic frequency refers to the frequency of the alleles themselves (eg frequency of B).
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