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Rainluke01:

Why did Lincoln say, "I have no purpose, directly or indirectly, to interfere with the institution of slavery in the states where it exists. I believe I have no lawful right to do so, and I have no inclination to do so"? He wanted to force the South to secede. He wanted to appease Northern Democrats. He was stating his party's platform. He wanted to keep the Union together.

Cupcake123456:

If slavery is not wrong, nothing is wrong. ... On August 21, 1858, in his famous debate with Stephen Douglas, Lincoln said: "I have no purpose directly or indirectly to interfere with the institution of slavery in the States where it exists. I believe I have no lawful right to do so, and I have no inclination to do so."

Cupcake123456:

do u understand or more help ?

Rainluke01:

But how does that help with the question you just restated it

Rainluke01:

@Cupcake123456

Cupcake123456:

ik

Cupcake123456:

i broke it down for a better understanding

Cupcake123456:

D

Rainluke01:

oh Ok thank you so much

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