How does sin(t)/(1-cos(t)) simplify to cos(t)/sin(t)?
are you sure that's the exact question as written?
It doesn't. Pick t=5 and you'll see it doesn't work.
For example...
Well it's that I'm looking at a solution my teacher wrote. He was showing how a cycloid had infinitely sharp cusps by finding the limit of the derivative of the parametric formulas given. So he was trying first to find the limit of sin(t)/(1-cos(t)) and he jumped to trying to find the limit of cos(t)/sin(t) because apparently, they're equal.
Look at #5. http://people.sfcollege.edu/bruce.teague/pdf/2312%20W11/2312_MG5_solutions_W11.pdf This link should work.
Did everybody leave?
Awww c'mon!
Now what am I gonna do?
Calm down...I'll have a look.
Haha ok
Oh, he's used L'Hopital's rule...do you know about that?
Maybe. I might have forgotten.
I was about say that
When you have indeterminate forms for the limit (numerator and denominator each go to something like 0/0 or infinity/infinity), the limit of the original ratio is equal to the limit ratio of the derivatives of the numerator and denominator.
Take the derivative of the numerator of sin(t) and you get cos(t), and the derivative of 1-cost(t) is sin(t).
Oh! It's all coming back now.
OK. That makes sense. Thank you soooooo much.
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\[\lim_{t \rightarrow 0} \frac{sin(t)}{1-\cos(t)}= \frac{0}{1-1}=\frac{0}{0}\] lokisan is right, this is an indeterminate and using L'hopital would give you
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It's in the thread window...little 'thumbs up' icon. There's one next to your own name too.
There. I got it.
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