another question on limits
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} (\int\limits_{0}^{x}e ^{x}dx)^{2}/\int\limits_{0}^{x}e ^{2x ^{2}}dx\]
The numerator easily simplifies to \[ \left(e^x - 1\right)^2 \] but the lower integral has no elementary antiderivative, so I'm not too sure.
If you could show that the limit of the denominator goes to infinity, you could apply L'Hopital's.
how about using l'hospital's rule?
I think l'hospital's rule would solve it.
well whats the integration of the denominator?
There is no elementary solution to it.
You can just apply the fundamental theorem of calculus to find the derivative of numerator and denominator.
Yes, but L'Hopital's only works if you know you have an indeterminate form. We don't know what the limit of the denominator is.
I think by looking at a graph for e^(x^2), we can see that the area under this graph goes to infinity as x goes to infinity.
That works. Then after application of FToC and L'Hopital's this should be pretty easy to solve.
can any one of you solve it.. i have no idea whatsoever...lol
Well, I got the answer to be 0. Is it right at first?
right on buddy..=)
Good.
We're going to apply L'Hopital's rule, but you have first to be aware of the Fundamental theorem of calculus, that states: \[{d \over dx}{\int\limits_{0}^{x}f{(t)}d t}=f(x)\]
how is that so?
Just take it for now :)
alright go on..=)
\[{d \over dx}({\int\limits_{0}^{x}e^t d. t })^2=2\int\limits_{0}^{x}e^t d t. e^x=2e^x(e^x-1)\] I used chain rule here as well.
That's the derivative of the numerator.
Are you following so far?
The derivative of the denominator is just: \[{d \over dx}\int\limits_{0}^{x}e^{2t^2} d.t=e^{2x^2}\]
doesn't the anti derivative come out to be \[\left(e^x - 1\right)^2\]
Well what you wrote above is the value of the integral, but we're looking for the derivative of the square of the integral. That's equal to, by chain rule, 2*the integral*its derivative.
oh ok i get it..=)
can you explain this a little.. {d \over dx}({\int\limits_{0}^{x}e^t d. t })^2=2\int\limits_{0}^{x}e^t d t. e^x
\[{d \over dx}({\int\limits\limits_{0}^{x}e^t d. t })^2=2\int\limits\limits_{0}^{x}e^t d t. e^x\]
Good. Now we have found both derivatives of the numerator and the denominator. So, we have: \[{2e^{2x}-2e^x \over e^{2x^2}}={2e^{2x}(1-{1 \over e^x}) \over e^{2x}(e^{2x^2-2x})}={2-{2 \over e^x} \over e^{2x^2-2x}}\] The top goes to 2 as x goes to infinity, and the bottom goes to infinity as x goes to infinity. Hence the limit goes to 0.
The key to find what you asked about is applying both chain rule and FToC at the same time. So for chain rule assume the integral is u, then: d/du(u^2)=2u.u'. u is the value of the integral which is (e^x-1). u' is the derivative of the integral which, by FToC, e^x. ans 2 is just 2 :)
To understand the FToC, look at the differentiation, for now, as the inverse operation of integration. So they "undo" each other. I hope that helps.
hmm..got it.. but i didn't understand how you simplified the denominator here \[{2e^{2x}-2e^x \over e^{2x^2}}={2e^{2x}(1-{1 \over e^x}) \over e^{2x}(e^{2x^2-2x})}={2-{2 \over e^x} \over e^{2x^2-2x}}\]
When you take something is a common factor, you divide the rest by it. Right? When dividing you subtract powers, that's all.
I gotta go now. I may catch up with you later. Bye!!
oh ya...how did i miss that! thanx a lot bro.. =)=)
cyaaaa..
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