Ask
your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics
15 Online
How do I restrict the domain and codomain of f(x) = x^2 so that it is a bijection (and its inverse is a function)?
Still Need Help?
Join the QuestionCove community and study together with friends!
isnt bijection just another term for inverse function? one-to-one?
just say that x>=0 then for every value of x there is only one y and it is a strictly increasing function so for every y there is only 1 x
bijection means that function is onto and one to one
thought so; it sounded like group theory terminology to me..
I learnt this at Calculus
Still Need Help?
Join the QuestionCove community and study together with friends!
Rio another solution is 0>=x
Can't find your answer?
Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Latest Questions
Aubree:
Guys, what does love feel like? I've been getting a tight chest and when I talk to him my heart rate hangs out around 100-120 beats per min, and when he doe
thereneelg:
ok... anyone have advice?? ...I did Choir all throughout Middle school and have ALWAYS been put in Soprano those three years.
kamariana:
The Byzantine Procopius is known for (5 points) reconquering much of the old Roma
chuckD:
hellp!!! what does it mean to describe a scientist as skeptical Why is sceptical
DoltonCarlee:
So like do y'all know anything about the first world war?
thehearken:
anyone know how to explain this so its easier for me to understand? b(1)=2, b(n)=
7 hours ago
8 Replies
1 Medal
1 day ago
6 Replies
1 Medal
2 days ago
0 Replies
0 Medals
2 days ago
2 Replies
1 Medal
1 day ago
2 Replies
0 Medals
1 day ago
5 Replies
2 Medals