Question

what is the limit as x approaches 0 when ((1-cosx)^2)/x

Answer 1

0 i think

Answer 2

2(1-cosx) . sin(x) = 0

Answer 3

Yes L'pthals

Answer 4

yep :)

Answer 5

otherwise you expand the top and see what you can do to it..

Answer 6

((1-cosx)(1-cosx))/x = 0?

Answer 7

keep going....

Answer 8

1 -2cos(X) + cos^2(x)
-------------------- ....
x

Answer 9

doesn't (1-cosx)/x = o

Answer 10

dunno; its been so long since I tried it the hard way :)

Answer 11

you could try squeeze this on a graph

Answer 12

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim {x+to+0+}%28%281-cosx%29^2%29%2Fx

Answer 13

But, (1-cosx)/x times (1-cosx)/x = (1-cosx)^2 / x^2.......

Answer 14

Why would you do that?

Answer 15

i dunno why it cuts it short; but copy paste that link itno your address bar

Answer 16

@amogh - I'm just pointing out that I'm doing it wrong...

Answer 17

Yes, x will go with either of them, not both of them

Answer 18

@amistre64: do you like ff4?

Answer 19

Sh@t! I did the problem wrong on my test then.......

Answer 20

What did you answer?

Answer 21

Thank you for the Wolfram alpha link amistre64. How much is that?

Answer 22

I answered "0" but I didn't do my work correctly (analytically), so I get the problem wrong