Can someone solve and explain this to me please? "If f(x) = 2x + 1 and g(x) = (x – 1)/2 , then f(g(x)) =??" thanks

Question

amistre64 · Answer

it means:  that whatever you see an "x" in the f(x) equation; replace it with all of g(x)

amistre64 · Answer

If f(x) = 2x + 1 and g(x) = (x – 1)/2 , then:

 f(g(x)) = 2[(x-1)/2] +1 ; and simplify

anonymous · Answer

ok thank you, but why do you have to replace the x in fx with all of gx?...

amistre64 · Answer

its just becasue thats the way the notation reads;  why do it?  sometimes theres a practical reason; but for now its just to get you to  understand the process

anonymous · Answer

ahh alright thank you for your help! :)