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in absence of magnetic monopole, why we use the relation equation of magnetic monopole?
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to attempt to create a situation that we may actually create a magnetic monopole
is maxwell's equation could be effected by the presence of monopole in magnets?
i am not 100% sure but i believe the maxwell equation combines magnetic waves and electric waves into light
the divergence of the magnetic field would no longer be zero
Maxwell's second equation - the variant of Gauss' theorem for magnetic field would fail. The net magnetic field over any closed surface (the dot product of field and surface) should be zero. But not with magnetic monopoles.
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thnx for ur kind reply......gokuldas
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