can anyone explain why cosxdx=d(sinx)
just go and Check the taylor expansions of sinx and cosx... derivate one n ull reach the other :)
thanks
by definition the derivative of sinx is cosx \[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(x+h)-\sin(x)}{h}=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{sinxcosh+sinhcosx-sinx}{h}\] \[=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{sinx(\cosh-1)+sinhcosx}{h}=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{sinx(\cosh-1)}{h}+\lim_{h \rightarrow 0 }\frac{sinhsinx}{h}\] \[=sinxlim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{\cosh-1}{h}+cosx \lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{\sinh}{h}\] \[=sinx*0+cosx*1=0+cosx=cosx\]
we could have also applied l'hospital's rule (however you spell l'hosptial) \[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(x+h)-\sin(x)}{h}=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{\cos(x+h)}{1}=\cos(x+0)=cosx\]
i know d/dx(sinx)=cosx but my teacher said that d/dx(sinx) x dx =cosx x dx so d(sinx) =cosx dx i don't know the priciple behind
its just treating derivatives like fractions
so what is the priociple
they are actually called"differentials" , but yeh dnt worry bout that too much
the principle, just treat them as fractions
think of dy/dx , as meaning literally "dy" divided by "dx", even though the maths professors thinks its dodgy
when you think about it, it makes sense that you can treat them like fractions , because a derivative is a gradient , and a gradient is a fraction
\[f'(x)=\frac{dy}{dx}\rightarrow dy=f'(x)dx\]
thx
You could take a look at the graphs of sin x and cosx (they are the same except that sinx is 90 degrees to the right of cos x)
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