This problem has been haunting me!
If you mean the problem you already posted, you should discuss that there.
can you write this here ?
the problem?
no the haunter
here is the file...
If I get a chance and nobody else helped u in the meantime, I will try and look at the document a bit later.
Thank you very much estudier!
I really only need an answer for Part I
I guess the most straightforward one to do is a Royal Flush because obviously there are only 4 of them out of all the possible hands. All the possible hands is given by 52! and to choose 5 you want 5/52 * 4/51 * 3/50 * 2/49 *1/48 = 5! 47!/52! = 1/2,598,960. There are only 4 royal flushes so multiply by 4 = 1/649,740. That do?
I'm trying to understand how it's calculated. I'm sure your answer is correct, but see in the word doc where the prof. gives an example explanation?
What explanation would accompany your answer?
U mean the stuff in brackets?
The probability, I believe, is supposed to be a percentage
For a percentage just multiply by a 100.
I see your fractions, so that's the calculation - but then the prof. wants an explanation, look below the stuff in brackets
Don't get it, for a Royal Flush it's just 52 Choose 5. If you want more of an explanation then the first card must be 1 of AKQJ10 of a suit out of 52 cards, the second has to be one of the remaining 4 out of the 51 left...etc.
Don't get it, for a Royal Flush it's just 52 Choose 5. Then, for a particular Royal Flush *4.
So let me see if I understand..
Royal Flush 5/52 times 4/51 times 3/50 times 2/49 times 1/48 = 5
? (5*4*3*2*1)/(52*51*50*49*48) which is what I already put ie 5/52 * 4/51 * 3/50 * 2/49 *1/48 = 5! 47!/52! = 1/2,598,960.
As you can see the probabilty is very low...
Where I'm getting confused is here: = 5! 47!/52! = 1/2,598,960 It says "=5" then it has another fraction after that, 47/52, where does that and "= 1/2,598,960" come from?
I'm a math idiot, so I apologize
It doesn't say 5, it says 5! which is short for 5*4*3*2*1. n! means n*(n-1)*(n-2)........*1
The prof. hasn't used the exclamation points with us, that's what's confusing me
5! 47!/52! is the same as 52 choose 5 (ie 52 above 5 in brackets like in your paper) 47! in the top cancels with 47 and all the numbers below it in the bottom leaving you with 5/52 * 4/51 * 3/50 * 2/49 *1/48 If you don't know this notation then your professor won't expect u to use it, just write it out the long way.
So I should write it like this:
God this makes me nervous
lol
I like English ;)
You know what? I'm still lost. It's not your explanation. I just can't wrap my head around these kinds of things. I can't figure out how to write it out the long way, why we "choose 5" if there are only 4 RF's possible. I'm just lost.
Because there are 5 cards in a hand.
You are "choosing" 5 cards from 52 cards not 4 royal flushes
Like the example in your paper, u choose cards not pairs.
The question is whether u can make a pair with the cards you choose (or a Royal Flush).
So I'm choosing my first card from a deck of 52, my 2nd card from a deck of 51, 3rd from a deck of 50...
And how many times does that happen out of all the possible times.
Yes, correct.
so the "5, 4, 3,..." are not actual numbers, but your representation of each card
Not exactly, in order to get a particular Royal Flush, in Hearts, say, there are 5 cards in the deck that make up that Royal Flush. So I have to get 1 of them on the first deal, another on the next when there are 4 remaining of 51, etc. What I don't understand is why you are querying the calculation, I am doing it in the same way as your example eg in your paper you have 12 choose 3 for the pair example. Don't u know what it means?
Not really. Match confuses me all around. I'm SURE you're right, I would just like to understand it for myself
*Math
I agree with your desire but it seems to me u are asking some very basic questions that suggest to me u need a lot more study before tackling questions like this. It's not just formulas that you can plug things into, u need to think a bit about what is actually going on.
Well here's what I have...
so far, based on what you've said
I chose Royal Flush because obviously there are only 4 of them out of all the possible hands. The number of possible hands is represented by “52”. To choose 5 cards we use the equation: 5/52 * 4/51 * 3/50 * 2/49 * 1/48 There are 5 cards in the deck that make up the Royal Flush. So I have to get 1 of them on the first deal, another on the next when there are 4 remaining of 51, etc. The above equation comes out to: 5*4*3*2*1 / 52*51*50*49*48 There are 47 cards left in the deck after the 5 cards are chosen.
correct so far?
Let me read it...
okay
I chose Royal Flush because obviously (delete put since) there are only 4 of them out of all the possible hands. The number of possible hands is represented by “52” (meaning 52*51*50*...*1) (The probability) To choose (the) 5 cards (that make up a particular (one of the 4)Royal Flush,) we (calculate as follows) use the equation (it's not an equation) : 5/52 * 4/51 * 3/50 * 2/49 * 1/48 There are 5 cards in the deck that make up the (a particular) Royal Flush. So I have to get 1 of them on the first deal, another on the next when there are 4 remaining of 51, etc. The above equation comes out to: 5*4*3*2*1 / 52*51*50*49*48 (you already said this) There are 47 cards left in the deck after the 5 cards are chosen.
You could also delete the last sentence.
So what u have written covers getting a Royal Flush but there 4 of them out of the total so you need to multiply by 4.
Thanks! So how could we finish it off, in the same explanatory fashion, using the rest of your calculation
?
Well, to be honest I think it is not my work to write your assignment for u... You should do it in your own words. I have given u all the information u need to do it by yourself.
i don't think you should either, I just want to make sure that what I'm saying makes sense
:)
I'm trying to write it out now
Well, u saw my corrections to your first attempt.... I think u need to sit down and think about this problem a bit more carefully before u write anything. You have the "answer" it is now a question of explaining why that is the answer.
On reflection, it might be a good idea to use ! notation as it will demonstrate that u have researched/learned something (provided u understand it, that is).
The above calculation results in: 5*4*3*2*1 / 52*51*50*49*48, which equals 1/2,598,960 (3.84769292 * 10-7). There are only 4 royal flushes, so we multiply by 4 and get 1/649,740 (1.53907717 × 10-6).
decimals look right?
it's 10 to the negative 7 power, not 10-7
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