How can I prove that for all symmetric matrices, its inverse is also symmetric?
so we know \[A=A^T\]
one sec
ok lets me think
yea we know \[A^{T}=A\] if symmetric. no problem, take your time. thanks.
god joe is awesome at this stuff
lol, i thought i had it, one sec <.<
i need to go get my linear algebra book
my linear algebra book doesn't have this proof. :(
no zarkon is here we won't be able to do it now because he will i need to think faster
\[(A^T)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^T\]
add one step to what i have above and you have a proof
\[A^T(A^{-1})^T=(A^{-1}A)^T=I^T=I\]
that proves my statement
But this would only work if A is orthonormal isn't it?
\[(A^{-1})^TA^T=(AA^{-1})^T=I^T=I\]
that are only using the fact that A is symmetrical. It doesnt have to be orthonormal.
A has to be a n by n invertible matrix for the above to hold
it says i spelled invertible wrong
what am i missing
\[A^{-1}=(A^T)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^T\]
invertible i think tthats right
give me a sec...i'm trying to understand it...haha...
but i still don't understand how does this show that the inverse of a symmetric matrix will also be symmetric?
I just showed that the inverse matrix is symmetric...it is equal to it transpose
i would do it like this: Lets call the inverse of A B instead of A inverse (that -1 floating around everywhere is pissing me off). Then we have: \[AB = BA = I\] \[AB= I \iff (AB)^T = I^T \iff B^TA^T = I \iff B^TA = I\] so we have: \[B^TA =I , BA = I\] \[B^TA = BA \iff B^T = B\] Thus B is symmetric.
that works too...just longer
yeah, yours is good. I just hate that -1 floating around. And I also wanted to do this for myself lolol
@zarkon, for the one you written: \[A^{-1}=(A^{T})^{-1}=(A^{-1})^{T}\] How can do I know from start that \[A^{-1}\] is \[A^{T}\] from the start?
As in how is \[A^{-1}=(A^{T})^{-1}\]. I am not sure about this part.
@joemath, for the part \[B^TA =I , BA = I\], why is \[B^{T}=B\]?
B is symmetrical
\[A^{-1}=(A)^{-1}\] \[A=A^T\] thus \[A^{-1}=(A)^{-1}=(A^T)^{-1}\] I'm just replacing A by A^T since they are equal
oh ya you are so right! didn't thought of this! thanks for enlightening me!
for what Joe wrote \[B^TA =I , BA = I\] this tells us that \[B^TA=BA\] multiply by \[A^{-1}\] on the right \[B^TAA^{-1}=BAA^{-1}\] thus \[B^T=B\]
thanks for covering for me zarkon :)
ohh now i got what Joe wrote! that's equally brilliant too. thanks guys!! really appreciate your help.
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