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can someone help me with this true/false question? Also could you explain the reason behind your answer?
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Can't read docx.
which windows do you have?
OK, correction, I don't do docx.
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that the problem guru.
i say yes it is true.
If limits exist, then yes i would say true as well. Since for every x on either side of a, f(x) < g(x) then as x ->a, lim f(x) < lim g(x) If this wasn't so, there wouldn't be continuity I think this is the correct reasoning
yeah, i agree with that.
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Lad will be happy...tku.
Thanks!
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