Prove that if gcd(a,b)=1, then gcd(a,bc)=gcd(a,c) (Hint: let gcd(a,c)=d and let gcd(a,bc)=e)
god is it late. i wonder if we can do this without making a mess
start with \[ax+by=1\]
then \[ax_1+cy_2=d\] \[ax_2+bcy_2=e\]
and we want to show that \[d|e,e|d\]
multiply \[ax+by=1\] by d to get \[adx+bdy=d\]
no i don't think it is that easy
but i am on the way i think, although at any time i can screw this up
good night. i am going to try a couple more lines of this. i know this is the right idea
it doesn't say anywhere that a b or c are integers so I don't think it is that easy
we have \[adx+bdy=d=ax_1+cy_1\]
i think we are suppose to assume they are integers
oh of course everything in sight is an integer
otherwise question doesn't even make sense
You're right it doesn't make sense if they aren't integers
oki think i am almost there
is this line ok \[adx+bdy=d=ax_1+cy_1\]
it just says \[d=d\]
That looks right
damn got stuck again hold on
ok i think we write \[adx+b(ax_1+cy_1)y=d\] and then \[adx+abx_1y+bcy_1y=d\] and finally \[a(dx+bx_1y)+bcy_1y=d\]
there got it. and what does this algebra mean?
the last line is a linear combination of \[a\] and \[bc\] and since \[e=\gcd(a,bc)\] it divides any linear combination of the two
and therefore \[e|d\]
i believe it is all there and actually correct. but we are not done. we just showed that e divides d. the next job is to show that d divides e, but that works with the same idea
again start with \[ax+by=1\] multiply by \[e=ax_2+bcy_2\] to get \[aex+bex=e=ax_2+bcy_2\] and the replace e by \[ax_2+bcy_2\] in that equation and so on.
You'll have to give me a minute to understand this, but I think it looks right Why can't we just say that acx + bcy = c so a(cx) + bc(y) = c and a(cx) + c(by) = c so a(cx) + bc(y) = a(cx) + c(by) which means that gcd(a, bc) = gcd(a, c) Does this make any sense?
i have to say that i am too tired to get this but i am almost certain it is wrong . but i cannot give a good reason at the moment.
I think you are probably right. Thank you for your help!
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