Question

prove secx+tanx+k then prove that sinx=k*k-1\k*k+1

Answer 1

That doesn't make sense!

Answer 2

May be it makes sense to in some higher dimension?

Answer 3

Could you rewrite the question again, and make sure you write it correctly?!

Answer 4

Yeah it might be when secx+tanx=k prove sinx = above said expression in k.
Proof goes on here:-
Rewriting secx and tanx we get (1+sinx)/cosx = k
now multiply and divide by (1-sinx)
Now we get cosx/(1-sinx)=k
Implies cosx=k(1-sinx)
Substitute this value of cosx in above we get
(1+sinx)/k(1-sinx) = k
Implies (1+sinx)/(1-sinx) = k^2
(1+sinx)=k^2(1-sinx)
1+sinx=k^2-k^2sinx
(k^2+1)sinx=k^2-1
sinx=(k^2-1)/(k^2+1)
Hence Proved ur result....
Any doubts in this Please do comment