Help! I have to find Fourier Serie
Any Fourier Series?
i came to a0=pi/2 an=1/(pi*n^2)(-1-cos(npi) bn= -3cos(npi)/n
i just have to put this all together right?
Yes, and you want to evaluate the terms with cos in them so they don't appear in your answer. Namely, cos(n.pi) = (-1)^n
so bn=-3*(-1)^n/n?
based on your b_n above, yes.
Usually we write something like that as \[ b_n = 3\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n} \]
so now i just use formula fo furier serie and that is it?
Assuming you've done everything else correctly yes. (And you've re-written the a_n using the same property of cos(n.pi) )
yes
\[\pi/4-2/\pi \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\cos (2n-1)x/(2n-1)^2+\int\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^(n-1)\sin nx/n\]
how can get this from a_n, b_n and a_0?
I assume you mean sum for the last term. If that is the answer, then you read off the Fourier coefficients \[ a_0 = \pi/4 \] \[ a_n = \frac{-2}{\pi (n-1)^2}, \ n \geq 1 \] \[ b_n = \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n} \] So if this the answer you're aiming for, check your calculations and make sure the coefficients match this.
sorry, that coefficient for a_n isn't right. It is...
\[ a_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \frac{(-1 -(-1)^n)}{n^2} \] It is zero when n is even and it is not zero when n is odd.
a1 = -2/pi a2 = 0 a3 = -2/pi . 1/3^2 a4 = 0 a5 = -2/pi . 1/5^2 etc.
so because its 0, i get for a_n only -2/pi(n-1)^2
actually you're a_n for n > 0 is exactly right. Your a_n is a_n = 1/(pi*n^2)(-1-cos(npi)) = -2/pi. 1/n^2 , when n is odd because cos(n.pi) = -1 when n is odd = 0 , when n is even because cos(n.pi) = 1 when n is even
As for your a_0, your answer of pi/2 is exactly right. But remember that when you right down the Fourier series it's a_0/2 + ....
yes
So the only problem you have left is the 3 which appears in the b_n.
so b_n is not correct?
your b_n doesn't correspond to the answer you wrote down; they differ by a factor of 3
\[1/\pi \int\limits_{-\pi}^{0}x*\sin(nx)dx+2/\pi \int\limits_{0}^{\pi}x*\sin(nx)dx\]
this is b_n and i think is ok if i have 3
What is the function your are finding the Fourier series of?
x, -pi<x<0 2x, 0<x<pi
mmm....it's 2x, 0<=x<=pi
does this change anything?
changing the function at a point doesn't change anything. But check your b_n calculation.
can you tell me what is wrong here?
yes, you're right. I fell into the --- (pied up minus signs) trap. -3 it is. Note to self: drink more coffee before calculating Fourier coefficients.
:)
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