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Physics 14 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Using the scientific definition of work, does a greater amount of force always result in a greater amount of work? Why or why not?

OpenStudy (turingtest):

no because work is also proportional to the distance over which the force acts. if, for example, you have a 10N force acting over a distance of 1m we have 10(1)=10J of work being done. if, however, you have a force of 20N acting over a distance of 0.2m, the resulting work done is 20(0.2)=4J, which you can see is less than the work done by the 10N force in my example.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Thanks . ^_^

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Work is actually proportional to displacement i.e, distance in a specified direction

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Not the net displacement, necessarily...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

If you want to be really rigorous about it, \[\text{An infinitesimal amount of work } \delta W \text{ is proportional} \] \[ \text{ to the infinitesimal displacement }\delta r \text{ over which the force in question acts.}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

But given the nature of the question, I doubt that's necessary :)

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