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Mathematics 47 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

True or False: If f and g are differentiable and f(x) ≥ g(x) for a < x < b, then f '(x) ≥ g'(x) for a < x < b. This is what I tried: I let f(x) = x^2 + 5 I let g(x) = x^2 Differentiating, f'(x) = 2x g'(x) = 2x Now, when you evaluate for (a,b), you will get exact same area. So, I showed that the equal part of the inequality is true. Then, I pick new functions: f(x) = x^3 g(x) = x^2 Differentiating, f'(x) = 3x^2 g'(x) = 2x f' grows faster than g', and so it will have a greater area than g'. So, I showed that the "greater than" part of the ineqaulity is also true.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So, is the answer TRUE?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

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OpenStudy (anonymous):

f is over g on the entire interval, but it is clear to see that g' > f' over the entire interval (it's steeper)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

You cannot prove theorems like that with two examples. You can refute them with 1 counterexample though ;)

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