How do I show this:
If f_n(x) = [(x^n(a-bx)^n) /n!] = (b^n / n!)*x^n (pi-x)^n

Then show that f_n(pi-x) = f_n(x)
I dont even know where to start but its about the irrationality of pi

Question

How do I show this:
If f_n(x) = [(x^n(a-bx)^n) /n!] = (b^n / n!)*x^n (pi-x)^n

Then show that f_n(pi-x) = f_n(x)
I dont even know where to start but its about the irrationality of pi

anonymous · Answer

what are a and b here?

anonymous · Answer

they are just integers  where pi = a/b

anonymous · Answer

Is this asking me to place pi in for n and x in for n and then subtract the two?

anonymous · Answer

I have a question : "pi" is $$\pi$$? Or it is an arbitrary symbol you replace for $$\frac{a}{b} $$ ?

anonymous · Answer

no its pi 3.14

anonymous · Answer

i think its just a coincidence its also a/b

anonymous · Answer

why do you have pi=a/b?

anonymous · Answer

thats what it says in the question "suppose pi = a/b is a rational number with a, b positive integers with no common factor." and then it says the question that i asked

anonymous · Answer

the point of the question is so i can later in another question prove by contradiction that pi is irrational. So right now we are pretending its rational

anonymous · Answer

I think you don't need prove by contradiction here because of complex way

anonymous · Answer

ok
i think i got it actually
thanks