Prove that limit of (1+a^x)^1/x @ x tending to 0 is e^a
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}(1+a^x)^(1/x)=e^a\]
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}(1+a^x)^{1/x}=e^a\]
ya !
not true
you can try using l'hopital and see
It is 100% true
How?
really...can't wait to see the proof :)
i think it is zero
no
oops wolfram beat me again. depends on the direction
1/x -> inf a^x = 1
what have u done
i think maybe the quesion is \[\lim_{x\to 0}(1+ax)^{\frac{1}{x}}\] then you get \(e^a\)
no
but if u prove that one i will do this
ok sorry i think i have wrong question
imagine
You might want to try finding this limit\[\large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \left(1+{1 \over x}\right)^{ax}\]
ok!will u?
one line \[e=\large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \left(1+{1 \over x}\right)^{x}\implies e^a=\large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \left(1+{1 \over x}\right)^{ax}\]
I'll get you started at least. First, let\[\large y= \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \left(1+{1 \over x}\right)^{ax}\]Now you need to take the natural log of both sides. \[\large \ln(y)= \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \ln\left(\left(1+{1 \over x}\right)^{ax}\right)\]Simplify a bit, and then use L'hopitals Rule.
wait please
Or this should also work out \[ \huge e^{ \lim_{x->0}\ln(1+\frac{1}{x})^{ax}}\]
then let 1/x = h, h-> inf
depends on your definition of \(e\) maybe but one definition is \(e=\lim_{x\to \infty}(1+\frac{1}{x})^x\) in which case it is immediate
I can't do that king george please tell me how to do it coz i am only beginning the limit topic
\[\large \ln(y)= \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \ln\left(\left(1+{1 \over x}\right)^{ax}\right)\]\[\large \ln(y)= \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} (ax)\cdot\ln\left(1+{1 \over x}\right)\]This is an indeterminate of the form \(\infty\cdot 0\) so we can use L'hopitals rule on both sides.
k! I try
Good luck.
thanx!
@kingGeorge \[ \large \ln(y)= \ (ax)\cdot\ln\left(1+{1 \over x}\right)=\\ \frac {\ln\left(1+{1 \over x}\right)} {\frac 1{ax}} \] Apply L'Hospital's rule again.
why did u divide by 1/ax.
to get the form 0/0 when x tends to infinity
have u taken derivative?
i m getting confused .i don't know anything please solve fully.
Derivative of Numerator is \[ -\frac{1}{\left(\frac{1}{x}+1\right) x^2} \] Drivative of Denominator is \[ -\frac{1}{a x^2} \] It should be easy from now on.
The ration of the derivatives after simplifcation becomes \[ \frac{a}{\frac{1}{x}+1} \]
ratio
k!
I got thanx!
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