Question

Jack tries to define a function g: ℚ → ℚ by the rule g(m/n) = m - n for all integers m and n with n ≠ 0. Susan claims g is not well defined. Who is right? Justify your answer

Answer 1

To not be well defined, you need to show that there is some (m/n) that gets mapped to two different values.

Answer 2

At first glance this may seem well defined, but a number in \(\mathbb{Q}\) can be represented in several ways. For example, \[\frac{1}{2}=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{3}{6}\]If it were well defined, each of these values should have the same output.

Answer 3

ohhhh i get it. sorry these r just discussion questions that i have never even briefed the topic so like there is no way that i can even give my input

Answer 4

Don't worry about it :)

Answer 5

Thanks gonna head to bed. I have had a rough day and my brain is closing shop.
Thanks KingG U r one devoted fella that always comes to help me :)

Answer 6

You're welcome.