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mathslover (mathslover):
OpenStudy (lgbasallote):
lol nice intro ;)
mathslover (mathslover):
:).... can u help @lgbasallote
OpenStudy (anonymous):
You need to post your question in order for people to answer it.
mathslover (mathslover):
i had posted the image @Wired ... see it
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OpenStudy (lgbasallote):
@mathslover
OpenStudy (kinggeorge):
How far have you gotten on your own?
mathslover (mathslover):
nice reply @lgbasallote .....this means that you can not help me ....
OpenStudy (anonymous):
cual es la pregunta ¿
OpenStudy (lgbasallote):
yeah.. im not knowledgeable in basic arithmetic algebra :(
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
The image just popped up.
mathslover (mathslover):
i think this can be proved like this :
If x > 1 then we can say that 1.x > 1 ... So n = 1 and i think it is done
but i think this is not a proper way
mathslover (mathslover):
@KingGeorge ...
OpenStudy (kinggeorge):
That proves it if \(x\ge1\). We also need to consider the case where \(0<x<1\).
mathslover (mathslover):
we can apply the archimedean property to number 1/x ...
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OpenStudy (kinggeorge):
By definition, there exists some \(x^{-1}>0\) (i.e \(\frac{1}{x}\)) such that \[x\cdot x^{-1}=1\]Now, take \(n\in\mathbb{N}\) such that \(n>x^{-1}\). This means that \[x\cdot n>x\cdot x^{-1}=1\]Thus, \(x\cdot n>1\).