determine if the improper integral converges or diverges
\[\int\limits_{0}^{4} 1/\sqrt{16-x^2}dx\]
i think you have to use a trig substitution
\[1-\sin ^2\theta=\cos ^2\]
my educated guess would be that it diverges
what are you gonna sub for x ?
well i was thinking about completing the square
how about a trig sub?
\[x=4\sin u\]
thats what i said earlier
you never mentioned the 4 exactly... or du
ok lol my bad
it's cool, so what is du ?
is it -cos?
\[x=4\sin u\implies du=4\cos udu\]
ok
typo*\[x=4\sin u\implies dx=4\cos udu\]so sub that into the integrand and simplify what do you get under the integral sign?
does the sin/cos become tan?
remember to use the identity you mentioned
\[4\sin \theta^2-1\]
\[{1\over\sqrt{16-(4\sin u)^2}}\cdot4\cos udu=\frac44{\cos u\over\sqrt{1-\sin^2 u}}={\cos u\over\cos u}=1\]
0 to 4?
because we have\[x=4\sin u\]that means our bounds change to be in terms of u\[0=4\sin u\implies u=\sin^{-1}0=0\]\[4=4\sin u\implies u=\sin^{-1}1=\frac\pi2\]so now our integral is from 0 to pi/2
that was weird...
\[\int\limits_{0}^{4}/\sqrt{16-x^2}dx=\int\limits_{0}^{4}(1/\sqrt{16})\sqrt{1-x^2/16}dx\] \[(1/4)\int\limits_{0}^{4}1/\sqrt{1-x^2/16}dx\] sub u=x/4 du=dx/4 dx=4du \[\int\limits_{0}^{4}1/\sqrt{1-u^2}du=\sin^{-1}u|_{0}^{4}\] \[\sin^{-1}(x/4)|_{0}^{4}=\sin^{-1}(1)-\sin^{-1}(0)\]
yeppers
typo" \[\int\limits_{0}^{4}(1/\sqrt{16})/\sqrt{1-x^2/16}dx\]
or with what I gave you you could just say that the integral is\[\int_0^{\pi/2}du\]
ok i understood when you did substitution and got cosu/cosu=1
but i know that the bound is u but i dont get what you did in that part
our original bounds are \(x=0\) and \(x=4\) but we made the substitution\[x=4\sin u\]so now we want to know what u is for each x bound first let's find what u is when x=0...
\[x=4\sin u\]so\[0=4\sin u\]solve this for u\[\sin u=0\implies u=\sin^{-1}0=0\]so that is our first bound; i.e. when x=0, u=0 also now for the other bound, x=4...
\[x=4\sin u\]subbing in the bound x=4 we get\[4=4\sin u\]solving for u we get\[1=\sin u\]\[u=\sin^{-1}(1)=\frac\pi2\]which is our new upper bound make sense?
ok yes im still digesting this last part were u=sin^-1(1)=pi/2 but yes i got the first part
http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/pdf/Trig_Cheat_Sheet.pdf gotta remember your special values for that one check out the unit circle part of this link for a refresher
oooh yeah it clicked
so now you can see how we reduced this ugly-loking thing to\[\int_0^{\pi/2}du\]and so it converges to...?
what do i replace du with?
nothing, just integrate
...and evaluate
u+c?
the constant only shows up in indefinite integrals it goes away when we evaluate what does it evaluate to?
pi/2?
right :) questions? comments?
wow...lol sorry for the slow mode. but no none :) so it converges
yes, to exactly \(\large \frac\pi2\) amazing ain't it? :D
yes quite strange how everything just simplified
that's what you call "elegance" in math it makes it purty...
lol thanks again! lots of help! :)
very welcome!
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