Proof of the Taylor series?
Why if a point shares all the derivatives with a function does it equate to that function?
taylor series assumes that a polynomial function exists for another equal function have equal derivatives
Do I take it as a given, then?
the derivatives of a function tell us about how the function moves at a given point if 2 functions move the same at a given point, then at that point they are equal in all aspects
I'm feeling a little pedantic today, but is there no proof of this (despite it being seemingly evident)? What about non-continuous functions?
taylor series have radiuses and intervals of convergence; such that not every taylor expansion is equal at all points of the functions
im not sure what you mean about non continuous functions in the regard
I meant that if a function jumps weirdly, it may muck up its Taylor (as you said that not every TE matches all points: incidentally, what sort of functions does this happen to?)
*series *TS
\[f(x) = c_0+c_1x+c_2x^2+c_3x^3+c_4x^4+...+c_nx^n\] h(x) = f(x) when all their derivatives are equal \[h'(x) = c_1+2c_2x+3c_3x^2+4c_4x^3+...+nc_nx^{(n-1)}\] \[h''(x) = 2c_2+3(2)c_3x+4(3)c_4x^2+...+n(n-1)c_nx^{(n-2)}\] \[h^{(3)}(x) = 3(2)c_3+4(3)(2)c_4x+...+n(n-1)(n-2)c_nx^{(n-3)}\] etc... and from there it goes into solving for the coeffs using methods appropriate for systems of equations
mostly we are concerned with solving for an interval that can be determined
http://www-math.mit.edu/~djk/18_01/chapter06/contents.html try to find more higher order approximations
knowing where the function and its polynomial converge allows us to use the poly in place of the function to simplify computations
i think the logarithmic and their TS polys have an interval of convergence that is not "at all points"
Excellent, thanks for that- I just wanted to know more about TS without having a meaningful question
:) youre welcome
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