IS IT ALWAYS THE CASE THAT IF WE WANNA PROVE THAT A CERTAIN VECTOR IS LINEARLY INDEPENDENT WE EQUATE IT WITH ZERO VECTOR ?IF YES THEN WHY
no
Actually the opposite is TRUE :
Linearly independent means that If one wants to equate some combination of OldVectors & the Additional Vector to Zero vector - only the total "killing" of all of them with multipliing by zero each of them will do the trick
There is usally some simple independence EVIDENCE
Also, one vector not zero is always independent.
For Exmp. (7,3,0) and (0,23, 12) and ((0, 170, ) ARE linearly independent BECAUSE...
Intended to write (0, 170, 0)
IT is IMpossible to create zero in 2-nd coordinate using the first two given vectors without "UN-ZEROING" both 1-st and 3-rd coordinates
Soo the first two vectors CANNOT "kill" the third vector to form (0, 0 ,0)
Summarry: INDEPENDENT MEANS YOU CAN_NOT equate it to zero by others
BTW medal is expected...
@Mikael, the way u use "kill" makes linear algebra look like a bloody sport.
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