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Mathematics 20 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

IS IT ALWAYS THE CASE THAT IF WE WANNA PROVE THAT A CERTAIN VECTOR IS LINEARLY INDEPENDENT WE EQUATE IT WITH ZERO VECTOR ?IF YES THEN WHY

OpenStudy (unklerhaukus):

no

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Actually the opposite is TRUE :

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Linearly independent means that If one wants to equate some combination of OldVectors & the Additional Vector to Zero vector - only the total "killing" of all of them with multipliing by zero each of them will do the trick

OpenStudy (anonymous):

There is usally some simple independence EVIDENCE

OpenStudy (helder_edwin):

Also, one vector not zero is always independent.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

For Exmp. (7,3,0) and (0,23, 12) and ((0, 170, ) ARE linearly independent BECAUSE...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Intended to write (0, 170, 0)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

IT is IMpossible to create zero in 2-nd coordinate using the first two given vectors without "UN-ZEROING" both 1-st and 3-rd coordinates

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Soo the first two vectors CANNOT "kill" the third vector to form (0, 0 ,0)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Summarry: INDEPENDENT MEANS YOU CAN_NOT equate it to zero by others

OpenStudy (anonymous):

BTW medal is expected...

OpenStudy (helder_edwin):

@Mikael, the way u use "kill" makes linear algebra look like a bloody sport.

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