I need to find k such that the integral from -infinity to infinity equals 1. I know the answer is 4 for the eqn (see picture), but my work doesn't agree. Help?
This is the problem
unfortunately latex is down so this will be a bit of a pain to type :/
That's okay. So far I've been able to separate the integral so that I have 1 = 2k lim(b--> infinity) of integral (0 to b) of |x|/(x^2 +4) dx
Hi TuringTest!
I know that I need do a u-sub. So I've gotten so far as the integral (blah) of 1/u^2 du
times k equals 1. But when I solve out, it doesn't work. I don't get four.
yeah I am having trouble too I think...
also, can I really do that? should the k be multiplied by 2, or should the integral be rewritten without it, just the integral from 0 to b. (lim as b approaches infinity)
you have to split the integral because of the absolute value
f(x)=-kx/(x^2+4)^2 for x<0 f(x)=kx/(x^2+4)^2 for x>=0
right. So in the integral, I made up for that by multiply by two, reasoning that the distance from 0 to infinity is the same as the distance from -infinity to 0
eventually, with u-sub (if I'm doing it right) the 2 on the outside of the integral will cancel out.
give me a minute to work it on paper...
okay, I'll do the same
okay I got it :)
gonna be a pain to type though
you did! What was I doing wrong?
|dw:1347308440346:dw|
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!