The rod is massless. At t = 0 rod is pointing up. It is of length R. rod is rotating without friction around the lower end which is hinged to rotation axis. The mass M is attached at the top end of the rod. The mass is pushed at t=0 with initial velocity . g is gravitational acceleration. All these parameters are given and known.
WHEN WILL THE MASS REACH THE LOWEST POINT ?
@mukushla @UnkleRhaukus @experimentex @estudier
@ParthKohli @radar @RaphaelFilgueiras
@sauravshakya
@Hero @apoorvk @AccessDenied
find the angular velocity
Well it is not constant and it is not explicit in energy - the linear v is there
@ganeshie8 @ajprincess
@ganeshie8 @ajprincess
@ParthKohli @mathslover
\[0.5mv^2 + mgh = E_0 = constant\]
CAN ANYONE SOLVE IT AROUND HERE ?
@Omniscience ?
HINTS ?
Please solve it someone
At least some SIGNIFICAN part of the way forward ?
@radar you can help ?
Hmm I guess you will just have to find the general term for velocity at any instant, and integrate the term in 'dt' - since energy conservation and angular velocity fundae won't work here.
let me try this out...
You ARE 20% forward
Hi @ajprincess
help
Ok , the prize for the sover will be 25 minute-worth field integral from EM that I am ready to do in return !
OK the beauty of this situation is that it is VERY common and simple setting. Buuut very unusual answer
@demitris @Directrix can you help ?
Hi @sauravshakya
@demitris @Directrix can you help ?
Hi @Mikael ..
I AM VERY SORRY I STARTED WITHOUT YOU. Complete please
Wait a minute.... Let me see what I can do.
@Directrix ?
@asnaseer Please help
Hello @Callisto - try to help please
Well imagine my sour expression when a nice timid student asks me this question in the middle of a nice sunny day ....
Why no rotational energy term?
Yea , you can use that. Although this is not the only way. Just do it please
This requires physics too
why not to use law of conservation of energy?
Calculus and mechanics are essentially one united universal soul
Good @mathslover USE it and do the soln. please
potential energy + kinetic energy = constant. I cn help after 1 n half hours
Actually I have already pointed that in a hint above. But go forward - when is the bottom reached ?
@ganeshie8 @UnkleRhaukus help pls
\[\frac{ t ^{2} }{2 } + \frac{ V _{o}}{ R } t =\int\limits_{ }^{ }\int\limits_{ }^{ } \frac {-R }{ g \cos \theta } \] 0..pi
A) What is the integration variable ? B) Why (suddenly ) double int ???? c) What is the reason you write this so categorically ?
A) g, of course B) equation of motion C) integral is tough, not bothering
theta is the angle the rod makes with the vertical 0...pi
g CANNOT CHANGE - it is CONSTANT !
it's theta, why would you ask?
would it be g or R?
Please Show the FULL argument. Double integral seems, on the face of it, out of place in this problem
PLEASE SOLVE @mukushla @TuringTest
argument from torque = -mgRcos(theta) I=mR^2 d^2/ dt^2 (theta) =- gRcos(theta)
\[E_0 = 2mgR +0.5 mv^2\]
Giving the solution soon in 3-4 minutes
E = CONSTANT
h for you is like the y axis ?
yes
OK here goes the solution
I have concluded this problem may be above my pay-grade.
\[t(h) = \int\limits_{h=2R}^{h=0} \frac{dl}{v(h)} dh\]
Now \[dl = \frac{dh}{\cos \theta}\]
Forgot to say - thta is the angle with the horizon of the rod.The relation dh to dl is a geometric fact that follows from\[h = Sin \theta ====> dh = dl * Cos \theta\]
sorry h = R*Sin theta
Thus gathering all the above observations until now we obtain the following integral
\[\int\limits_{h=2R}^{h=0} dh \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{h^2}{R^2}}*\sqrt{\frac{2E_0}{m} -2gh}}\]
Here the 1-st square root in the denominator is simply 1/Cos theta
The second square root is the velocity as a function of h - of course derived from the law of conservation of energy stated above
can you please explain how h = rsintheta means dh = dl costheta
Now by rescaling the distance by R and taking one convenient constant (from the denominator roots) out of the integral we simplify it all to
I did this
|dw:1347813111455:dw|
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!